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← IIT-JEE 2008 · Paper 2
MathematicsSingle correct+3 / -1Question 2 of 66

IIT-JEE 2008 · Paper 2, Mathematics question 2

Let the function g:(−∞,∞)→(−π2,π2)g:(-\infty,\infty)\to\left(-\frac\pi2,\frac\pi2\right) be given by g(u)=2tan⁡−1(eu)−π2g(u)=2\tan^{-1}(e^u)-\frac\pi2. Then, gg is

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Answer and worked solution

Official answer: C

Odd. tan⁡−1e−u=π2−tan⁡−1eu\tan^{-1}e^{-u}=\frac\pi2-\tan^{-1}e^u, so
g(−u)=2(π2−tan⁡−1eu)−π2=−g(u).g(-u)=2\left(\frac\pi2-\tan^{-1}e^u\right)-\frac\pi2=-g(u).

Increasing. g′(u)=2eu1+e2u>0g'(u)=\dfrac{2e^u}{1+e^{2u}}>0 for all uu.

(C)