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← JEE Advanced 2013 · Paper 1
MathematicsMultiple correct+4 / -1Question 53 of 60

JEE Advanced 2013 · Paper 1, Mathematics question 53

Let f(x)=xsin⁡πxf(x)=x\sin\pi x, x>0x>0. Then for all natural numbers nn, f′(x)f'(x) vanishes at

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Answer and worked solution

Official answer: B, C

Critical points. f′(x)=sin⁡πx+πxcos⁡πx=0f'(x)=\sin\pi x+\pi x\cos\pi x=0 gives tan⁡πx=−πx\tan\pi x=-\pi x.

In (n,n+1)(n,n+1). The right side is negative, and tan⁡πx<0\tan\pi x<0 only on (n+12,n+1)(n+\frac12,n+1), where it increases from −∞-\infty to 0 while −πx-\pi x decreases: exactly one crossing.

So there is a unique zero in (n+12,n+1)(n+\frac12,n+1) and hence a unique one in (n,n+1)(n,n+1).

(B), (C)